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Jesus: Man or legend. (official debate thread.)
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hillbillyatheist
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PostPosted: Wed Dec 05, 2007 11:37 pm    Post subject: Jesus: Man or legend. (official debate thread.) Add User to Ignore List Reply with quote

This thread will host a debate between Mr_C and romans120.

once they iron out the details and who goes first and all of that that that person may post the first opening statements. (no posts before then)

any post made by anyone other than the debate participants (or me as the moderator) should be places in the peanut gallery thread. link

Enjoy the show!
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PostPosted: Thu Dec 06, 2007 1:57 pm    Post subject: Add User to Ignore List Reply with quote

Agreed upon rules

Opening statement - Romans
Opening statement - Mr_C
6 Rounds (Romans will go first.)
Q&A - 1 Question post each and one Answer post each, with a maximum of 20 questions per. (Mr_C will go first since romans is going to kick off the 1st round)
Closing Statements - Romans
Closing Statements - Mr_C

(one week time limit per post)

Romans and Mr_C can now make their opening statements.
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romans120
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PostPosted: Fri Dec 07, 2007 6:20 pm    Post subject: Add User to Ignore List Reply with quote

Lurkers, AF members and able Moderators. I am confident that you will use your capable intellect and propensity to divide the logical from the illogical, the rational from the irrational and truth from error to confidently judge the evidence put forward in this debate. (ok enough brown nosing - candy bars to everybody who votes for my side of the fence)

I basically want to present three arguments for the historicity of Jesus Christ.

1. The New Testament manuscripts show evidence that the original manuscripts were in wide circulation during the life time of those in the area where Jesus was claimed to have lived and people would have known whether or not He existed.

Evidence:
A. The earliest manuscripts of portions of the New Testament are designated p4 p64 p67.(p - stands for papyrus and the numerals are just manuscript designation used Greek New Testament critical apparatuses)These are dated late second century and are a part of a single codex containing all four gospels. Which means when the text was copied all four gospels were available for the transcriber to copy into one document. It would have taken time for the circulation of these manuscripts to have been collected let alone copied. Perhaps the most important aspect of these transcripts is that they contain chapter and text divisions. The originals certainly did not have this feature and would have taken a considerable amount of time to develop. So the original manuscripts of the gospels would have originated significantly before these were copied. If the originals were being circulated in the relatively limited region of Judea and Asia and the their credibility depended upon a legendary figure it would have been very easy for their enemies to discredit them and the very unlikely that they would have been able to maintain a following.
B. Another and probably the most important manuscripts are known as the Chester Beaty manuscripts designated p45 and p 46. p 46 is significant because it contains 11 new testament books other than the Gospels. It is dated 200 A.D. So not only were the Gospels in wide circulation by this time but so was a majority of the New Testament. Putting the originals well within the life time of those who could verify and write whether Jesus existed or not. Remember these manuscripts were not isolated they went from church to church and town to town in the same areas where Jesus would have lived.
(Technical information taken from The Text of the New Testament by Bruce Metzger and Bart Ehrman)

2. The time Christianity began to be recognized as a religion and the time Jesus was claimed to have lived is to short for a unified religion to have developed around a mythical figure.

Evidence:
The New Testament manuscripts date second century but as mentioned above there is evidence contained in them of earlier manuscripts. However, Clements letters to the Church of Corinth do date to the first century. This puts organized Christianity to within as little as 50 years after Christ would have died. Many references to Christ and Christians can be found dating back to this point however the most compelling is that of "Thallus" who's writings date from 52 A.D. Codified religions during this area simply do not develop from mythical figures over short periods of time. They take time to develop and grow unless you have a central leader who teachings and or actions give a standard or rule by which the religion forms.

3. References from literature.

Evidence:
I realize this is where the argument is usually happens. I do not wish to rehash what is normally put forward so I will limit my evidence to two references

A. Thallus - "Thallus wrote about the crucifixion of Jesus. His writing date to circa 52 A.D. and the passage on Jesus was contained in Thallus' work on the Eastern Mediterranean world from the Trojan War to 52 A.D. Thallus noted that darkness fell on the land at the time of the crucifixion. He wrote that such a phenomenon was caused by an eclipse." (Harry Martin Proving the Historic Jesus 1995)
B. Tacticus - "Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberious at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus, and a most mischievous superstition, thus checked for the moment, again broke out not only in Judea, the first source of the evil, but even in Rome, where all things hideous and shameful from every part of the world find their center and become popular." (Harry Martin Proving the Historic Jesus 1995)
_________________
For what can be known about God is plain to them, because God has shown it to them. 20 For his invisible attributes, namely, his eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly perceived, ever since the creation of the world, in the things that have been made. So they are without excuse. Romans 1:19-20

Check out my weblog at http://romans120.wordpress.com/
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PostPosted: Sat Dec 08, 2007 1:44 am    Post subject: Add User to Ignore List Reply with quote

Well, I was going to try and keep this short and sweet, but it sort of grew on me as I was writing it. There are so many points to cover that I tried to stick with the main ones. Special thanks to Todangst for his work on the topic.

Introduction

It seems that there is more evidence for the Jesus of the Bible of being a mythological character than an actual historical man. While there were plenty of men named Yeshua (Jesus) around the year 0, none would fit the description, characteristics, or alleged actions of the figure called "Jesus Christ", who is the object of the Christian religion.

1) There are no contemporary references to Jesus.
The earliest writings on Jesus, the "gospels", were written many decades after Jesus supposedly died, came back from the dead, and ascended into "Heaven".

In fact, the earliest of these, "The Gospel According to Mark", was written no earlier than 65-75 CE. According to scholars, Jesus would have died around than the year 33 CE. This places the gospel of Mark anywhere between 30 and 50 years after the death of Jesus.

Later references to Jesus include those in the New Testament, as well as the following:
· Flavius Josephus - c90CE
· Suetonius - c120CE
· Tactitus - 110CE
· Pliny - c110CE
· Thallus - cited in c300CE
· Talmud - 200-500CE
· 'Acts of Pilate'

The earliest of these references, the one supposedly written by Josephus, is a celebrated passage in Josephus' writings that names Jesus as "The Christ". Unfortunately for Christian apologists, this is a well-known interpolation dating to the 4th century. Furthermore, Josephus could not even be considered a contemporary of Jesus since he was born at least 4 years after Jesus was supposed to have died.

But why wouldn't people notice the most famous man of the era? Consider what Todangst wrote here:
Quote:
Even the relatively sober account of Jesus found in the first gospel, The Gospel of 'Mark', presents us with a Jesus who garnered quite a bit of attention. Consider for example, Mark 2:1-12, where the crowd coming to see Jesus is so great, that a paralytic has to be lowered through the roof of a building Jesus is in, in order for Jesus to see him. Elsewhere Mark tells us that the crowds that Jesus drew were so overflowing that he has to lecture from a boat on the Sea of Galilee. When Jesus travels from Bethany to Jerusalem, throngs of people line the roads to welcome him. Mark also tells us of how Jesus performed miracles before thousands: on two different occasions Jesus feeds thousands through miracles (see for example, Mark 8:1).

In short, 'Mark' gives us a 'Jesus' who is bigger than the Beatles, and I believe the Beatles analogy is a good one: we even have a nice parallel between the story of Jesus' lecture from a ship at Galilee, and the Beatles famous 'rooftop' audition, where they were forced to play an impromptu concert on a rooftop, lest the crowds that would rush to see them cause a riot. In both cases, the crowds had reached, hysterical, historically noteworthy, proportions. Yet, John E. Remsberg, in 'The Christ: A Critical Review and Analysis of the Evidence of His Existence' (The Truth Seeker Company, NY, no date, pp. 24-25) makes the curious observation that no one from this era wrote a single word about the Jesus Hysteria. Remsberg notes: "(While) Enough of the writings of the authors named in the foregoing list remains to form a library, (no where)... in this mass of Jewish and Pagan literature, aside from two forged brief passages in the works of a Jewish author (Josephus), and two disputed passages in the works of Roman writers, there is to be found no mention of Jesus Christ."


2) The Gospels aren't eye-witness accounts
"Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first were eyewitnesses and servants of the word." [Luke 1:1-2 NIV]

As a natural consequence of the gospels not being written until decades after the supposed life of Jesus, the canonical gospel stories are not eye-witness accounts.
The following is a quote from here
What we have are stories written down decades after the events supposedly happened, but by people who were not actually there at the time. The authors heard these stories from someone else — maybe the original witnesses, but then again maybe not. We don’t know how many links in the chain there might have been, but each one increases the problems already described exponentially. In the end, the stories we have simply cannot be trusted as accurate or reliable representations of something that might have happened; even worse, we can’t necessarily know which parts may still be reliable and which aren’t.

Furthermore, the authorship of these gospels is extremely debatable. "The Gospel According to Mark", for example, was an anonymous writing that is now attributed to Mark based on tradition alone.

3) The Gospels are a form of Midrash
The term "Midrash" means any exegetical exposition, interpretation, or commentary treating of the Jewish scriptures.

Not only do the Gospels contain basic and irreconcilable differences in their accounts of Jesus, they have been put together according to a traditional Jewish practice known as "midrash", which involved reworking and enlarging on scripture. This could entail the retelling of older biblical stories in new settings. Thus, Mark’s Jesus of Nazareth was portrayed as a new Moses, with features that paralleled the stories of Moses. Many details were fashioned out of specific passages in scripture. The Passion story itself is a pastiche of verses from the Psalms, Isaiah and other prophets, and as a whole it retells a common tale found throughout ancient Jewish writings, that of the Suffering and Vindication of the Innocent Righteous One. It is quite possible that Mark, at least, did not intend his Gospel to represent an historical figure or historical events, and designed it to provide liturgical readings for Christian services on the Jewish model. Liberal scholars now regard the Gospels as "faith documents" and not accurate historical accounts.
- Earl Doherty, The Jesus Puzzle

The following is quoted from here
Quote:
First, we'll see how much of Mark is based on the OT. The "OT Frame" represents a significant event parallel between the OT and Mark, "(OT parallels)" represents a signficant number of verses with parallels in the OT.

Pericope...OT Frame (verse origin)

1:1-8..........NONE KNOWN (OT parallels)
1:9-11........(OT Parallels)
1:12-13......1 Kings 19, The Fall
1:14-20......1 Kings 19:19-21 (Galilee Isa (9:1)
1:21-28......(many OT/Jewish lit echoes)
1:29-39......NONE KNOWN
1:40-45......2 Kings 5, Nm 5:1-2
2:1-12........2 Kings 1:2-17
2:13-17......1 Kings 19:19-21
2:18-22......CHREIA SAYING
2:23-28......(v25=2 Sam 15-16)
3:1-6..........1 Kings 13:4-6
3:7-12........Invention
3:13-19......Exodus 18:2-26
3:20-30......(Zech 3:13), Exodus 18:2-26
3:31-35......CHREIA SAYING, Exodus 18:2-26
4:1-20........(many to OT/Hellenistic culture)
4:21-25......SAYING (OT/Jewish parallels)
4:26-29......SAYING (OT parallels)
4:30-34......SAYING (OT parallels)
4:35-41......Jonah through Psalm 107
5:1-20........(Isa 65:1-7)
5:21-43.....2 Kings 4:8-37
6:1-6..........CHREIA SAYING
6:7-13........MISSION CHARGE (CYNIC)
6:14-29......Esther
6:30-44......2 Kings 4:38-44
6:45-56......(Psalm 77, Isa 43, Job 9)
7:1-23........(many OT, anachronism)
7:24-30......Elijah-Elisha echoes, CHREIA SAYING
7:31-37......Isa 35:5-6
8:1-13........2 Kings 4:38-44
8:14-21......Non-Markan
8:22-26......Interpolation based on 7:31-7
8:27-33......Invention (Peter's Confession)
8:34-38......Hellenistic Philosophical Concepts
9:1-13........2 Kings 1, other OT
9:14-29......NONE KNOWN
9:30-37......Invention (2nd passion prediction
9:38-41......Num 11:26-29
9:42-50......(Isa, Num, Lev)
10:1-12......OT, CHREIA (Paul on Divorce)
10:13-16....CHREIA
10:17-31[color=white]....[/colorCHREIA
10:32-34....Invention (3rd passion prediction)
10:35-45....Invention/anachronism (OT parallels)
10:46-52....Plato? NONE KNOWN
11:1-11......2 Kings 9:13, 1 Samuel 9 & 10 (OT parallels)
11:12-14....(Jeremiah 8, 29, Joel 1, Hosea 9)
11:15-19....2 Kings (OT parallels)
11:20-25....Invention -- 2nd fig tree
11:27-33....Baptism authority? SAYING
12:1-12......PARABLE, 2 Kings 9:22-10:27 (OT parallels)
12:13-17....CHREIA (Paul?)
12:18-27....CHREIA (OT/Jewish parallels, Paul?)
12:28-34....(OT/Jewish parallels, Paul?)
12:35-44....2 Kings 12:5-17
13:1-31......2 Kings 10:26-28, anachronisms, (OT parallels)
13:32-37....PARABLE
14:1-11......2 Kings 9:1-13 (OT parallels)
14:12-25....1 Samuel 10:1-7 (Paul?)
14:26-31....(OT parallels)
14:32-42....1 Kings 19:1-5 (Psalm 78:39-41)
14:43-52....2 Samuel 15-16
14:53-65....Invention (OT parallels)
14:66-72....NONE KNOWN (Peter's denial= invention)
15:1-15......Daniel 6 (Josephus War?)
15:16-20....(OT parallels, Roman procession)
15:21-32....Daniel 6 (OT parallels)
15:33-41....Daniel 6 (OT parallels)
15:42-47....Daniel 6 (OT parallels)
16:1-8........Daniel 6, 2 Kgs 13: 20-1 (OT parallels)

Let's now group them:

DIRECT OT PARALLELING:

1:12-13......1 Kings 19, The Fall
1:14-20......1 Kings 19:19-21 (Galilee Isa (9:1)
1:40-45......2 Kings 5, Nm 5:1-2
2:1-12........2 Kings 1:2-17
2:13-17......1 Kings 19:19-21
3:1-6..........1 Kings 13:4-6
3:13-19......Exodus 18:2-26
3:20-30......(Zech 3:13), Exodus 18:2-26
3:31-35......CHREIA SAYING, Exodus 18:2-26
4:35-41......Jonah through Psalm 107
5:21-43.....2 Kings 4:8-37, Num 5:1-2
6:14-29......Esther
6:30-44......2 Kings 4:38-44
6:45-56......(Psalm 77, Isa 43, Job 9)
7:31-37......Isa 35:5-6
8:1-13........2 Kings 4:38-44
9:1-13........2 Kings 1, other OT
9:38-41......Num 11:26-29
11:1-11......2 Kings 9:13, 1 Samuel 9 & 10 (OT parallels)
11:12-14....(OT: Jeremiah 8, 29, Joel 1, Hosea 9)
11:15-19....2 Kings (OT parallels)
12:1-12......PARABLE, 2 Kings 9:22-10:27 (OT parallels)
12:35-44....2 Kings 12:5-17
13:1-31......2 Kings 10:26-28, anachronisms, (OT parallels)
14:1-11......2 Kings 9:1-13 (OT parallels)
14:12-25....1 Samuel 10:1-7 (Paul?)
14:32-42....1 Kings 19:1-5 (Psalm 78:39-41)
14:43-52....2 Samuel 15-16
15:1-15......Daniel 6 (Josephus War?)
15:21-32....Daniel 6 (OT parallels)
15:33-41....Daniel 6 (OT parallels)
15:42-47....Daniel 6 (OT parallels)
16:1-8........Daniel 6, 2 Kgs 13: 20-1 (OT parallels)
------------------
DIRECT PARALLELS 33/71

OT VERSE CONSTRUCTION (built out of individual Verses)

1:9-11........(OT Parallels)
1:21-28......(many OT echoes) also 1 Enoch, Tobit
9:42-50......(Isa, Num, Lev)
12:28-34....(OT/Jewish parallels, Paul?)
14:26-31....(OT parallels)
15:16-20....(OT parallels, Roman procession)
14:53-65....Invention (OT parallels)
6:7-13........MISSION CHARGE (CYNIC) (OT parallels)
4:1-20........PARABLE (many to OT/Hellenistic culture)
4:21-25......SAYING (OT/Jewish parallels)
4:26-29......SAYING (OT parallels)
4:30-34......SAYING (OT parallels)
------------------
plus 12 = 45/71 or 63.3%

CHREIA

2:18-22......CHREIA SAYING
2:23-28......CHREIA (OT parallels)
6:1-6..........CHREIA SAYING
7:24-30......Elijah-Elisha echoes, CHREIA SAYING
10:1-12......OT, CHREIA (Paul on Divorce)
10:13-16....CHREIA
10:17-31....CHREIA
12:13-17....CHREIA (Paul?)
12:18-27....CHREIA (OT/Jewish parallels, Paul?)
-------------------

9/71

OUTRIGHT INVENTION

3:7-12........Invention
7:1-23........(many OT, anachronism)
8:27-33......Invention (Peter's Confession)
9:30-37......Invention (2nd passion prediction
10:32-34....Invention (3rd passion prediction)
10:35-45....Invention/anachronism (OT parallels)
11:20-25....Invention -- 2nd fig tree
13:32-37....PARABLE
14:66-72....NONE KNOWN (Peter's denial= invention)
----------------
8/71

UNKNOWN or SOURCE NOT OT

9:14-29......NONE KNOWN
10:46-52....Plato? NONE KNOWN
5:1-20........Josephus? (OT Parallels=Isa 65:1-7)
8:34-38......Hellenistic Philosophical Concepts
8:22-26......Interpolation based on 7:31-7
8:14-21......NONE KNOWN Non-Markan
11:27-33....Baptism authority? SAYING
1:1-8..........NONE KNOWN (OT parallels)
1:29-39......NONE KNOWN

-------------------
9/71 = 13.8%

Well, about 65% of Markan pericopes are built off of the OT one way or another, sometimes by direct paralleling of events, sometimes by verse inspiration. The rest is either Chreia from the culture or hand of Mark, or obvious invention. Some things are difficult to classify, of course....

Mark is fiction. If there was really a community spurring Mark to write this, where are the traditions? There is nothing in Mark that does not go back to the OT, Paul, or something Hellenistic. Exegetes are found of arguing that Matthew cannot be a disciple, else why would have copied Mark? That is just as true of Mark: if he knew stories about the HJ, why did he bother to parallel the OT


4) All Christian "Messianic Prophecies" fail on every level
First off, the passages referred to as "Messianic Prophecies" in the Bible were NOT fulfilled by Jesus:
From here
What is the Messiah supposed to accomplish? The Bible says that he will:

A. Build the Third Temple (Ezekiel 37:26-28 ).

B. Gather all Jews back to the Land of Israel (Isaiah 43:5-6).

C. Usher in an era of world peace, and end all hatred, oppression, suffering and disease. As it says: "Nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall man learn war anymore." (Isaiah 2:4)

D. Spread universal knowledge of the God of Israel, which will unite humanity as one. As it says: "God will be King over all the world -- on that day, God will be One and His Name will be One" (Zechariah 14:9).

The historical fact is that Jesus fulfilled none of these messianic prophecies.

Christians counter that Jesus will fulfill these in the Second Coming, but Jewish sources show that the Messiah will fulfill the prophecies outright, and no concept of a second coming exists.


Secondly, those prophecies that Christians do use as prophecies for Jesus have absolutely nothing to do with the Jesus of the Bible. Furthermore, the OT passages that are used are not only taken out of context, but they are often misquoted and/or shrunken in order to shoe-horn a non-prophesy into a prophesy.
For example:
From here
Quote:

To give but one example, in what is probably the most well known Messianic Prophecy, Mattew quotes a verse from the Book of Isaiah:

18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ took place in this way. When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child of the Holy Spirit;
19 and her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to divorce her quietly.
20 But as he considered this, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, "Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit;
21 she will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins."
22 All this took place to fulfil what the Lord had spoken by the prophet:
23 "Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and his name shall be called Emmanuel" (which means, God with us).

Matt. 1:18-23 (NRSV)

14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel.

Isaiah 7:14 (NRSV)

There are a few problems with Matthew's quotation of Isaiah. One, Matthew uses the word virgin (greek - parthenos) whereas the original is young woman (hebrew - almah). While most other versions would also use the word virgin in Isaiah, it is usually because they're reading the verse in light of Matthew's quotation. It is believed that Matthew used virgin (parthenos) because he used the greek Septuagint version of the Hebrew Scripture, which also used the word parthenos. In the original Hebrew the word used is almah, which is not quite the same as virgin. Almah means young woman or maiden, while another Hebrew word, bethulah, would be the equivalent for parthenos/virgin.

Also, in Matthew's quote, he uses the future tense "shall conceive" while the original uses the present tense "is with child." Randel Helms notes that "Hebrew has no future tense as such" (p. 49) and suggests that it should be read in the present tense.

Ok, so Matthew is not a good transcriber, but even if the two objections can be met, he is still guilty of out-of-context quotation. If we read Isaiah 7, we can see that the verse does not refer to a future prophecy of the coming Messiah. The chapter starts with the Kingdom of Ahaz (Judah) being attacked by King Rezin of Aram and King Pekah of Israel . Isaiah was sent by the Hebrew god to Ahaz' court to console the king, assuring the monarch that the invasion will not succeed. To prove his point, Isaiah says:

14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel.
15 He shall eat curds and honey by the time he knows how to refuse the evil and choose the good.
16 For before the child knows how to refuse the evil and choose the good, the land before whose two kings you are in dread will be deserted.

Isaiah 7:14-16 (NRSV)

In other words, before the child learns good from evil (a time span of a few years), his enemies will be defeated. It's not a prophecy about Jesus or the Messiah, and Matthew grossly distorted what the text plainly says. A part of the child's life, from conception to about the age of three or four, is used by Isaiah as a metric of time. To read Messianic Prophecy from it is to engage in creative mental acrobatics.

(Emphasis mine)

5) Jesus was a myth, just like all the other mythological man-gods before Christ
For this point, I'll post my favorite quote on the very subject:
From here
Quote:

When Osiris is said to bring his believers eternal life in Egyptian Heaven, contemplating the unutterable, indescribable glory of God, we understand that as a myth.

When the sacred rites of Demeter at Eleusis are described as bringing believers happiness in their eternal life, we understand that as a myth.

In fact, when ancient writers tell us that in general ancient people believed in eternal life, with the good going to the Elysian Fields and the not so good going to Hades, we understand that as a myth.

When Vespatian's spittle healed a blind man, we understand that as a myth.

When Apollonius of Tyana raised a girl from death, we understand that as a myth.

When the Pythia , the priestess at the Oracle at Delphi, in Greece, prophesied, and over and over again for a thousand years, the prophecies came true, we understand that as a myth.

When Dionysus turned water into wine, we understand that as a myth. When Dionysus believers are filled with atay, the Spirit of God, we understand that as a myth.

When Romulus is described as the Son of God, born of a virgin, we understand that as a myth.

When Alexander the Great is described as the Son of God, born of a mortal woman, we understand that as a myth.

When Augustus is described as the Son of God, born of a mortal , we understand that as a myth.

When Dionysus is described as the Son of God, born of a mortal woman, we understand that as a myth.

When Scipio Africanus (Scipio Africanus, for Christ's sake) is described as the Son of God, born of a mortal woman, we understand that as a myth.

So how come when Jesus is described as
the Son of God,
born of a mortal woman,
according to prophecy,
turning water into wine,
raising girls from the dead, and
healing blind men with his spittle,
and setting it up so His believers got eternal life in Heaven contemplating the unutterable, indescribable glory of God, and off to Hades—er, I mean Hell—for the bad folks...
how come that's not a myth?


Furthermore, from wiki
Although there were ethical and ceremonial considerations none of these could compare to the power of the divine eucharist, since it was literally believed to be the body (bread) and blood (ale) of the god. Since the ancient Nilotics believed that humans were whatever they eat, this sacrament was, by extension, able to make them celestial and immortal. The doctrine of the eucharist ultimately has its roots in prehistoric (symbolic) cannibalism, whose practitioners believed that the virtues and powers of the eaten would thus be absorbed by the eater. This phenomenon has been described throughout the world.
(emphasis mine)
The above does not describe the sacrament of Jesus. It describes the sacrament of Osiris, who was first worshiped over 2,400 years before Jesus was.
More on Osiris:
Plutarch and others have noted that the sacrifices to Osiris were “gloomy, solemn, and mournful…” (Isis and Osiris, 69) and that the great mystery festival, celebrated in two phases, began at Abydos on the 17th of Athyr[9] (Nov. 13th) commemorating the death of the god, which is also the same day that grain was planted in the ground. “The death of the grain and the death of the god were one and the same: the cereal was identified with the god who came from heaven; he was the bread by which man lives. The resurrection of the God symbolized the rebirth of the grain.

At least since Osiris was the grain god, his sacrament made sense. But Christians simply stole this ritual and made it their own without regard to common sense, historical honesty, or, as history tells us, the possibility of being considered a cannibalistic cult as a result of the theft of this sacrament.

Conclusion
Not only is there zero reliable evidence for a historical Jesus, there is also plenty of evidence with which we can logically deduce that Jesus was a myth, just like all the other man-gods that came before and after him. There are no compelling reasons to believe that the Jesus of the Bible could exist, much less did exist, despite the fact that many still believe in this myth today.
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PostPosted: Sat Dec 08, 2007 1:56 am    Post subject: Add User to Ignore List Reply with quote

Round 1: romans120:

romans you have until december 15 to make your first rebuttal.
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PostPosted: Sun Dec 09, 2007 4:39 pm    Post subject: Add User to Ignore List Reply with quote

Quote:
1) There are no contemporary references to Jesus.

2) The Gospels aren't eye-witness accounts



In my estimation these two points are essentially the same point just differant approaches. Actually I believe this is the only argument the Jesus Mythicist can possibly put forward since there are no ancient manuscripts that descredit the existence of Christ on the contrary His detractors always assume His existence. It fallaciacly elevates the standard of evidence to a level that is not at all practical for any historian to look back into ancient history to make judgements about the historicle reliability of any number of people who lived in the ancient past. This is because of the availability of extant manuscripts from that period. Consider the technology available for writimg materials. During the life time of Christ the material available was Papyrus. Although "parchment" (animal skins) was beggining to be developed it was very uncommon in fact it was not until the 4th century that "Parchment or vellum" came into general use. Papyrus was not very durable and was not easy to come by. So the writing down of events was limited to individuals who had access and training to do so. And what we have today is only a limted representation to the documents from that time period as most of them no longer exist. Consider this example. There is less proof of the existence of "Caiaphus the High preist" than there is Christ. However he is mentioned in the Gospels and in Josephus. His tomb was uncovered in 1990 showing the even though the attestation was limited it still was proof that he did in fact exist. (Information taken from Henry Martin "Proving the Historic Jesus" and Metzger and Ehrman "The Text of the New Testament"

Quote:
1) There are no contemporary references to Jesus.
The earliest writings on Jesus, the "gospels", were written many decades after Jesus supposedly died, came back from the dead, and ascended into "Heaven".

In fact, the earliest of these, "The Gospel According to Mark", was written no earlier than 65-75 CE. According to scholars, Jesus would have died around than the year 33 CE. This places the gospel of Mark anywhere between 30 and 50 years after the death of Jesus.


While I diagree with the assumptions made when dating the Gospel of Mark it is not dated suffieciently later to be of significance in this debate. 30 to 50 years is nothing when determining the realibility of an historicle event. It is well within the life time of people to talk with eyewittnesses or for people to discredit what has been said and to write alternate accounts. Remember these letters were included in the Bible to the exclusion of others based upon there circulation amongst the churches. So this letter went through Jerusalem and all of Judea to Bethleham and Galilee. So people in these areas who knew very well there genealogy and especially the geneology of David would know immediatly if Jesus was a made up figure or not.

Quote:
Later references to Jesus include those in the New Testament, as well as the following:
· Flavius Josephus - c90CE
· Suetonius - c120CE
· Tactitus - 110CE
· Pliny - c110CE
· Thallus - cited in c300CE
· Talmud - 200-500CE
· 'Acts of Pilate'

The earliest of these references, the one supposedly written by Josephus, is a celebrated passage in Josephus' writings that names Jesus as "The Christ". Unfortunately for Christian apologists, this is a well-known interpolation dating to the 4th century. Furthermore, Josephus could not even be considered a contemporary of Jesus since he was born at least 4 years after Jesus was supposed to have died.


It is quite frankly very easy to recognize interpolations of any manuscript. And even when the interpolations are removed Joseph is obviously talking about a historicle Jesus but gives no hint at being a Christian himself as the interpolations would make us believe.

Quote:
But why wouldn't people notice the most famous man of the era? Consider what Todangst wrote here:
Quote:
Even the relatively sober account of Jesus found in the first gospel, The Gospel of 'Mark', presents us with a Jesus who garnered quite a bit of attention. Consider for example, Mark 2:1-12, where the crowd coming to see Jesus is so great, that a paralytic has to be lowered through the roof of a building Jesus is in, in order for Jesus to see him. Elsewhere Mark tells us that the crowds that Jesus drew were so overflowing that he has to lecture from a boat on the Sea of Galilee. When Jesus travels from Bethany to Jerusalem, throngs of people line the roads to welcome him. Mark also tells us of how Jesus performed miracles before thousands: on two different occasions Jesus feeds thousands through miracles (see for example, Mark 8:1).

In short, 'Mark' gives us a 'Jesus' who is bigger than the Beatles, and I believe the Beatles analogy is a good one: we even have a nice parallel between the story of Jesus' lecture from a ship at Galilee, and the Beatles famous 'rooftop' audition, where they were forced to play an impromptu concert on a rooftop, lest the crowds that would rush to see them cause a riot. In both cases, the crowds had reached, hysterical, historically noteworthy, proportions. Yet, John E. Remsberg, in 'The Christ: A Critical Review and Analysis of the Evidence of His Existence' (The Truth Seeker Company, NY, no date, pp. 24-25) makes the curious observation that no one from this era wrote a single word about the Jesus Hysteria. Remsberg notes: "(While) Enough of the writings of the authors named in the foregoing list remains to form a library, (no where)... in this mass of Jewish and Pagan literature, aside from two forged brief passages in the works of a Jewish author (Josephus), and two disputed passages in the works of Roman writers, there is to be found no mention of Jesus Christ."


As stated above only a portion of the masses had the resources to write anything down. And the documents that were in existance if thought no longer needed because of better sources or the author not easily understood than the papyrus would be washed and re-used. So we would not expect to find such material in existence today so the lack of it is not evidence for anything. (what do expect fox news? it's two thousand years ago for gosh sake!!!) This can be seen in available papyrus wittnesses for the New Testament. There are 116 extant papyrus manusripts compared to over 5000 extant manusripts that are parchment. (edit: information taken from United Bible Society Greek New Testament 4th ed.)

Quote:
2) The Gospels aren't eye-witness accounts
"Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first were eyewitnesses and servants of the word." [Luke 1:1-2 NIV]

As a natural consequence of the gospels not being written until decades after the supposed life of Jesus, the canonical gospel stories are not eye-witness accounts.
The following is a quote from here
What we have are stories written down decades after the events supposedly happened, but by people who were not actually there at the time. The authors heard these stories from someone else — maybe the original witnesses, but then again maybe not. We don’t know how many links in the chain there might have been, but each one increases the problems already described exponentially. In the end, the stories we have simply cannot be trusted as accurate or reliable representations of something that might have happened; even worse, we can’t necessarily know which parts may still be reliable and which aren’t.

Furthermore, the authorship of these gospels is extremely debatable. "The Gospel According to Mark", for example, was an anonymous writing that is now attributed to Mark based on tradition alone.


The reason these gospels were circulated and the pseudo-pigrapha wasn't was because the people who were in a position to know they were reliable considered them reliable. (see above argument) ""My kids crying please excuse all typos""
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Check out my weblog at http://romans120.wordpress.com/


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PostPosted: Sun Dec 09, 2007 4:44 pm    Post subject: Add User to Ignore List Reply with quote

Round 1: Mr_C:

Mr_C you have until december 16 to make your first rebuttal.
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PostPosted: Mon Dec 10, 2007 1:57 am    Post subject: Add User to Ignore List Reply with quote

Please note that this is in reply to Romans120's opening post. I will reply to his round 1 post, as well as his reply to my round 1 post, as my round 2 post.



romans120 wrote:

I basically want to present three arguments for the historicity of Jesus Christ.

1. The New Testament manuscripts show evidence that the original manuscripts were in wide circulation during the life time of those in the area where Jesus was claimed to have lived and people would have known whether or not He existed.

Evidence:
A. The earliest manuscripts of portions of the New Testament are designated p4 p64 p67.(p - stands for papyrus and the numerals are just manuscript designation used Greek New Testament critical apparatuses)These are dated late second century and are a part of a single codex containing all four gospels.

Firstly, I would like to point out that whether p4 is from the same codex as p64 and/or p67 is hotly debated by those who study the subject.
Secondly, these fragments contain bits of Luke and Matthew - a far cry from "containing all four gospels".
However, for the points that follow, I will assume (but not concede) that these papyri did indeed come from the same codex, and I will assume that this codex contained the four canonical gospels.

Quote:

Which means when the text was copied all four gospels were available for the transcriber to copy into one document. It would have taken time for the circulation of these manuscripts to have been collected let alone copied.

This is the real meat of your argument - "It would have taken time". How much time? A year? Six months? Two hundred years? A day? A week? It would be fallacious of you to attempt to shoe-horn in a historical date based on speculation alone.
The gospels are dated mid-late first century. The codex in question would be dated right at the year 200 - which agrees with your statement that "it would have taken time". Unfortunately for your case, this is not evidence for "The New Testament manuscripts show evidence that the original manuscripts were in wide circulation during the life time of those in the area where Jesus was claimed to have lived and people would have known whether or not He existed.".

Quote:

Perhaps the most important aspect of these transcripts is that they contain chapter and text divisions. The originals certainly did not have this feature and would have taken a considerable amount of time to develop. So the original manuscripts of the gospels would have originated significantly before these were copied.

Again we find Romans speculating on time. This time - the amount of time it would take to re-write something in an organized manner.
I could personally re-write the 4 canonical gospels (given the time and inclination) with new chapters and verses in less than a month. Is that what we mean by "a considerable amount of time"?
Of course we don't have the originals to substantiate the former claim, "The originals certainly did not have this feature...".
Quote:

If the originals were being circulated in the relatively limited region of Judea and Asia and the their credibility depended upon a legendary figure it would have been very easy for their enemies to discredit them and the very unlikely that they would have been able to maintain a following.

During the first century, Mithraism was spreading just as fast as another mystery cult - Christianity.
From here (Note: This is a great history of religion site for those that are interested):
    The spread of both Mithraism and Christianity can be seen at the two extremes of the empire. Doura-Europos, a frontier post on the Euphrates abandoned in about AD 257, has buildings associated with both religions.

    Thousands of miles away, in Britain, there is a temple of Mithras in London in the early 4th century. Also in England, and from the same century, a very early depiction of Jesus Christ (young, clean-shaven, with curly fair hair) survives in a mosaic pavement at Hinton St Mary.

There were, of course, other religions at the time, which I'm sure Romans would agree are all false religions, based on legend. Their mere existence, much less their popularity, counters his above claim quicker than I can type Smile
Quote:

B. Another and probably the most important manuscripts are known as the Chester Beaty manuscripts designated p45 and p 46. p 46 is significant because it contains 11 new testament books other than the Gospels. It is dated 200 A.D. So not only were the Gospels in wide circulation by this time but so was a majority of the New Testament. Putting the originals well within the life time of those who could verify and write whether Jesus existed or not. Remember these manuscripts were not isolated they went from church to church and town to town in the same areas where Jesus would have lived.
(Technical information taken from The Text of the New Testament by Bruce Metzger and Bart Ehrman)

I think I've already countered this point, so I'll move on.

Quote:

2. The time Christianity began to be recognized as a religion and the time Jesus was claimed to have lived is to short for a unified religion to have developed around a mythical figure.


If you had said "around a historical figure", I would have given you examples of people drinking cool-aid or burning themselves to death, but since you said "mythical", I'll just use Mithraism as an example of a religion that did develop in a relatively short amount of time around a mythical figure:
source
Like Christianity, Mithraism was "not practiced until the 1st century CE."
Like Christianity, Mithraism became extremely popular by the 3rd century.
Notably, Mithraism is a cult of Zoroastrianism just as Christianity is a cult of Judaism. Additionally, it should be noted that Christianity includes many characteristics that were first used by Mithraism.
From here
    The idea of a sacrificed saviour is Mithraist, so is the symbolism of bulls, rams, sheep, the blood of a transformed saviour washing away sins and granting eternal life, the 7 sacraments, the banishing of an evil host from heaven, apocalyptic end of time when God/Ormuzd sends the wicked to hell and establishes peace. Roman Emperors, Mithraist then Christian, mixed the rituals and laws of both religions into one. Emperor Constantine established 25th of Dec, the birthdate of Mithras, to be the birthdate of Jesus too. The principal day of worship of the Jews, The Sabbath, was replaced by the Mithraistic Sun Day as the Christian holy day. The Catholic Church, based in Rome and founded on top of the most venerated Mithraist temple, wiped out all competing son-of-god religions within the Roman Empire, giving us modern literalist Christianity.


But I digress...

Quote:

Evidence:
The New Testament manuscripts date second century but as mentioned above there is evidence contained in them of earlier manuscripts. However, Clements letters to the Church of Corinth do date to the first century. This puts organized Christianity to within as little as 50 years after Christ would have died.

50 years. That's the best you can claim when we all know what happens to legends in the span of one year; 10 years; 20 years; 30 years.
The best contemporary example of this is Elvis Presley. Elvis died on August 16, 1977. We have pictures of his corpse. We have eye-witnesses to confirm that he was dead. We have no evidence to even hint that anything other than the only Elvis that we have is (sadly) a dead one.
Yet a mere 30 years later, we have sites like http://www.elvis-is-alive.com/ . The analogy fails on many levels, but one thing remains true: 50 years is about 49.9 years longer than humans need to create a myth.

Quote:
Codified religions during this area simply do not develop from mythical figures over short periods of time. They take time to develop and grow unless you have a central leader who teachings and or actions give a standard or rule by which the religion forms.

Even if this were true, people would only have to believe that this central leader existed in order to have the same effect. They had that chance once the gospels were formed, either by word of mouth or on paper.

Quote:

Many references to Christ and Christians can be found dating back to this point

No they can't.
Quote:
however the most compelling is that of "Thallus" who's writings date from 52 A.D.

Neither the date nor the premise is correct.

From here:

The date:
    The Armenian reference places the end of Thallus' "brief compendium" at the 167th Olympiad (which spans 112-109 BC). This would remain uncontested if it were not for a single reference to Thallus regarding an event long after that time: namely, the darkness at the death of Christ. Since this event must have occurred in the 1st century AD, and no doubt sometime between 28 and 38 AD, there are two possibilities: either the Armenian text is referring to a different work, or the date has been corrupted. Virtually every scholar to date has opted for the latter and made efforts to conjecture the original date--the only two plausible (though still unlikely) options are the 207th Olympiad (which spans 49-52 AD) and the 217th Olympiad (which spans 89-92 AD). The latter in fact is the more likely, judging from palaeography. But as I've already noted, it seems far more likely that the Armenian reference is to a different work. It could even be an excerpted epitome of a longer chronology.

    This leaves us with no clue as to when Thallus wrote. Since the 1st-century darkness was probably not mentioned in the "brief compendium," there is no reason to suppose that the date of 109 BC is incorrect--there is nothing physically wrong with the text, nor any other reason to suspect an error (although Mosshammer claims otherwise, his reasoning is hard to justify). However, if Thallus did mention the darkness in another work (probably the Histories), he clearly had to have written after 28 AD. Although the guess of 52 AD as the end-date for the compedium is the one most commonly mentioned, if the date is wrong at all then 92 AD is more likely correct. But all these possible dates--109 BC, 52 AD, 92 AD--only give us the "time after which" he had to have written this "brief compendium." These dates do not tell us when he wrote the Histories or whatever work that mentioned the darkness.

    It is also supposed that the final date covered by the compendium should be close to the time the compendium was written, but that also does not follow. Eusebius, for instance, wrote a world chronicle that ended some thirty years before he wrote it. Moreover, when an author writes a compendium there is no telling how much history he intends to cover, or how far back he will end it--and a work as short as three books might very well have been so short because it was unfinished. In other words, the "compendium" could have ended in 109 BC even if it was written in 109 AD, and if the compendium's end-date was 52 AD or 92 AD, it could still have been written in 109 AD, or later. So we have to look elsewhere for a "time before which" Thallus wrote. All we have is this: the first time Thallus is ever mentioned is by Theophilus, writing around 180 AD, which leaves us with over a century of grey area: Thallus could have written any time between 28 and 180 AD. And if he did not mention an eclipse occurring in the first century, then he could have written any time between 109 BC and 180 AD, a span of almost three centuries.

    This is where proper historical method turns the tables on Christian apologists. The usual argument is that Thallus is the earliest witness to the gospel tradition, proving that the story was circulating, and taken seriously enough by pagans to debunk it, before the 2nd century. But the opposite reasoning applies: since we do not know that Thallus wrote in the 1st century, but know that he could have written in the 2nd, and since no other sources attest to any gospel tradition earlier than the 2nd century, it follows that Thallus most likely wrote in the 2nd century--or at the earliest, the 90's AD, since there is some evidence that Josephus referred to Luke in that decade, although that same evidence just as easily suggests that Luke used Josephus, dating that gospel after 96 AD. Otherwise, since all other sources which mention any gospel tradition appear only in the 2nd century, and Thallus may easily have written in that period, it follows that Thallus most likely wrote in the 2nd century. This conclusion would change if any further data were rescued from the sands of time which made an earlier date more plausible, but odds are, Thallus is not the earliest witness to the gospel tradition. Even at best, there is at present no reason to assume he is.


The premise:

    What exactly is Thallus supposed to have said about Jesus? We don't really know. We can only guess, based on an obscure passage passed down to us second-hand which already shows signs of at least one interpolation. George Syncellus, a 9th-century monk, composed a world chronicle, quoting verbatim from numerous previous chroniclers, one of whom being the 3rd-century Christian chronicler Julius Africanus. In one such case, Africanus is quoted regarding "what followed the savior's passion and life-giving resurrection" as follows:

      This event followed each of his deeds, and healings of body and soul, and knowledge of hidden things, and his resurrection from the dead, all sufficiently proven to the disciples before us and to his apostles: after the most dreadful darkness fell over the whole world, the rocks were torn apart by an earthquake and much of Judaea and the rest of the land was torn down. Thallus calls this darkness an eclipse of the sun in the third book of his Histories, without reason it seems to me. For....how are we to believe that an eclipse happened when the moon was diametrically opposite the sun?


    This is all we get. It isn't clear what Thallus actually said, or whether he even mentioned Jesus at all. Africanus is merely criticising the possibility that the darkness at the death of Christ was a solar eclipse, and thus a natural rather than a supernatural event--an attack addressed in the Apology of Tertullian, and voiced by the Jews in the Gospel of Nicodemus, which may have been written in the time of Africanus. Although this implies that Thallus mentioned the death of Christ in some way, it does not entail it. For Thallus may have simply recorded an eclipse that occurred around the time that Christ was believed to have died, with Africanus connecting the events on his own. We do not have the context of this quote, and we do not know what else Africanus said about this event or about Thallus. Of course, even if Thallus did mention the death of Jesus, we have already shown that he then probably wrote in the 2nd century, when we know this gospel story was already circulating nearly a century after the event. In such a case, Thallus is not an independent witness to the story, but is merely responding to Christian literature. This makes him of practically no use to apologists.


Essentially, your best evidence comes from a 9th century monk, Syncellus, who is apologizing for a reference made by Africanus, who wrote in the 3rd century, who is apologizing for a possible reference to Thallus, who may have referenced a solar eclipse.
The date of the eclipse is unknown. The date that Thallus may or may not have written it is likely 100-200 years after it could have possibly occurred.
Lastly, The passage for which Africanus is apologizing, may have actually come from Phlegon (not Thallus), who wrote in the 140's CE:

    Africanus wrote in the early 3rd century. His contemporary, Origen, also cites Phlegon's mention of an earthquake and eclipse but does not repeat the exaggerations. Indeed, he expressly denies one of them in his commentary on Matthew, stating that "Phlegon, who mentioned an eclipse during the reign of Tiberius Ceasar, did not say that it happened during the full moon." This suggests that the exaggerated quote, which would surely have been seized upon as a valuable testimony, did not yet exist, in Africanus or anywhere else. But it appears in Agapius in the 10th century. And by the time of Michael the Syrian, in the 12th century, the Phlegon quote had already gone way over the top, to include the astonishing sentence: "the dead were resurrected, entered Jerusalem and said 'Woe to the Jews!'" Syncellus wrote in the 9th century. So a copier of his work who had also read Agapius probably put two and two together and gullibly added the note, which was eventually pulled into the text as copies continued to be made by other scribes.



Quote:

3. References from literature.

Evidence:
I realize this is where the argument is usually happens. I do not wish to rehash what is normally put forward so I will limit my evidence to two references

A. Thallus - "Thallus wrote about the crucifixion of Jesus. His writing date to circa 52 A.D. and the passage on Jesus was contained in Thallus' work on the Eastern Mediterranean world from the Trojan War to 52 A.D. Thallus noted that darkness fell on the land at the time of the crucifixion. He wrote that such a phenomenon was caused by an eclipse." (Harry Martin Proving the Historic Jesus 1995)

I already covered this above, so I'll move on.
Quote:

B. Tacitus - "Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberious at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus, and a most mischievous superstition, thus checked for the moment, again broke out not only in Judea, the first source of the evil, but even in Rome, where all things hideous and shameful from every part of the world find their center and become popular." (Harry Martin Proving the Historic Jesus 1995)

Tacitus lived from 55-120 CE, so he could not have been a contemporary of Jesus'.
As a consequence of this:
    "Conceivably, Tacitus may just be repeating what he was told by Christians about Jesus. If so, then this passage merely confirms that there were Christians in Tacitus' time, and that they believed that Pilate killed Jesus during the reign of Tiberius. This would not be independent confirmation of Jesus's existence. If, on the other hand, Tacitus found this information in Roman imperial records (to which he had access) then that could constitute independent confirmation. There are good reasons to doubt that Tacitus is working from Roman records here, however. For one, he refers to Pilate by the wrong title (Pilate was a prefect, not a procurator). Secondly, he refers to Jesus by the religious title "Christos". Roman records would not have referred to Jesus by a Christian title, but presumably by his given name. Thus, there is excellent reason to suppose that Tacitus is merely repeating what Christians said about Jesus, and so can tell us nothing new about Jesus's historicity.
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PostPosted: Mon Dec 10, 2007 2:03 am    Post subject: Add User to Ignore List Reply with quote

Round 2: romans120:

romans you have until december 17 to make your second rebuttal.

*edited to change "first" to "second" rebuttal.*


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PostPosted: Sat Dec 15, 2007 9:06 am    Post subject: Add User to Ignore List Reply with quote

Quote:
3) The Gospels are a form of Midrash
The term "Midrash" means any exegetical exposition, interpretation, or commentary treating of the Jewish scriptures.

Not only do the Gospels contain basic and irreconcilable differences in their accounts of Jesus, they have been put together according to a traditional Jewish practice known as "midrash", which involved reworking and enlarging on scripture. This could entail the retelling of older biblical stories in new settings. Thus, Mark’s Jesus of Nazareth was portrayed as a new Moses, with features that paralleled the stories of Moses. Many details were fashioned out of specific passages in scripture. The Passion story itself is a pastiche of verses from the Psalms, Isaiah and other prophets, and as a whole it retells a common tale found throughout ancient Jewish writings, that of the Suffering and Vindication of the Innocent Righteous One. It is quite possible that Mark, at least, did not intend his Gospel to represent an historical figure or historical events, and designed it to provide liturgical readings for Christian services on the Jewish model. Liberal scholars now regard the Gospels as "faith documents" and not accurate historical accounts.
- Earl Doherty, The Jesus Puzzle


1. The assertion that the Gospels contain irreconcilable differances has not been established. The most commonly apparent differances are very explainable and would even be expected. If there were not these differences of perspective than it would only be evidence that the Gospels depended upon a common source rather than a personal account of history.

2. I find it very illogical and not consistent with earlier jewish writing that an author intending to write a commentary re-interpreting the "Torah" would choose to do so using narrative type language. For example Mark transitions from event to event using the Greek word we translate "immediatly"

3. One would expect such parralells because the events of the Old Testament were prophetical and provided the nessessary proof for the Jewish audiance, to whom the Gospels were writtten, that Jesus was the Messiah.



-------------------
Quote:
9/71 = 13.8%

Well, about 65% of Markan pericopes are built off of the OT one way or another, sometimes by direct paralleling of events, sometimes by verse inspiration. The rest is either Chreia from the culture or hand of Mark, or obvious invention. Some things are difficult to classify, of course....

Mark is fiction. If there was really a community spurring Mark to write this, where are the traditions? There is nothing in Mark that does not go back to the OT, Paul, or something Hellenistic. Exegetes are found of arguing that Matthew cannot be a disciple, else why would have copied Mark? That is just as true of Mark: if he knew stories about the HJ, why did he bother to parallel the OT


1. The roots of christianity is judaism and Grecian culture so jewish and greek traditions would be shared plus I'm not all together sure what is exactly is missing from the Gospels to should be there is there was an established church, since the Gospels are intended to be a historicle narrative.

2. Christs legitimacy depended upon being consistent with the Old Testament so it is expected that is would be quoted from a lot and Mark was a protoge of Paul so if Pauls influence is seen in Marks gospel it wouldn't be all that surprising although I'm not sure I agree that Mark is signnificantly inluenced by Paul.

3. Liberal scholars commonly argue that Matthew and Luke depend on Mark as a common source. But this really a very strange conclusion because when Matthew is somewhat with parralell with Mark, Luke will not be paralell and vice versa. These books are different in writing style, vocabulary and word usage. So it highly unlikely that they depended upon one another


Quote:

4) All Christian "Messianic Prophecies" fail on every level
First off, the passages referred to as "Messianic Prophetic Prophecies" in the Bible were NOT fulfilled by Jesus:
From here
What is the Messiah supposed to accomplish? The Bible says that he will:

A. Build the Third Temple (Ezekiel 37:26-28 ).

B. Gather all Jews back to the Land of Israel (Isaiah 43:5-6).

C. Usher in an era of world peace, and end all hatred, oppression, suffering and disease. As it says: "Nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall man learn war anymore." (Isaiah 2:4)

D. Spread universal knowledge of the God of Israel, which will unite humanity as one. As it says: "God will be King over all the world -- on that day, God will be One and His Name will be One" (Zechariah 14:9).

The historical fact is that Jesus fulfilled none of these messianic prophecies.

Christians counter that Jesus will fulfill these in the Second Coming, but Jewish sources show that the Messiah will fulfill the prophecies outright, and no concept of a second coming exists.


Just because it was missed doesn't mean it's not there. Consider the example of Isaiah 53:7-9 "He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth; like a lamb that is led to the slaughter, and like a sheep that before its shearers is silent, so he opened not his mouth. 8 By oppression and judgment he was taken away; and as for his generation, who considered that he was cut off out of the land of the living, stricken for the transgression of my people? 9 And they made his grave with the wicked and with a rich man in his death, although he had done no violence, and there was no deceit in his mouth."


Secondly, those prophecies that Christians do use as prophecies for Jesus have absolutely nothing to do with the Jesus of the Bible. Furthermore, the OT passages that are used are not only taken out of context, but they are often misquoted and/or shrunken in order to shoe-horn a non-prophesy into a prophesy.
For example:
From here
Quote:

To give but one example, in what is probably the most well known Messianic Prophecy, Mattew quotes a verse from the Book of Isaiah:

18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ took place in this way. When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child of the Holy Spirit;
19 and her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to divorce her quietly.
20 But as he considered this, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, "Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit;
21 she will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins."
22 All this took place to fulfil what the Lord had spoken by the prophet:
23 "Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and his name shall be called Emmanuel" (which means, God with us).

Matt. 1:18-23 (NRSV)

14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel.

Isaiah 7:14 (NRSV)

There are a few problems with Matthew's quotation of Isaiah. One, Matthew uses the word virgin (greek - parthenos) whereas the original is young woman (hebrew - almah). While most other versions would also use the word virgin in Isaiah, it is usually because they're reading the verse in light of Matthew's quotation. It is believed that Matthew used virgin (parthenos) because he used the greek Septuagint version of the Hebrew Scripture, which also used the word parthenos. In the original Hebrew the word used is almah, which is not quite the same as virgin. Almah means young woman or maiden, while another Hebrew word, bethulah, would be the equivalent for parthenos/virgin.

Also, in Matthew's quote, he uses the future tense "shall conceive" while the original uses the present tense "is with child." Randel Helms notes that "Hebrew has no future tense as such" (p. 49) and suggests that it should be read in the present tense.

Ok, so Matthew is not a good transcriber, but even if the two objections can be met, he is still guilty of out-of-context quotation. If we read Isaiah 7, we can see that the verse does not refer to a future prophecy of the coming Messiah. The chapter starts with the Kingdom of Ahaz (Judah) being attacked by King Rezin of Aram and King Pekah of Israel . Isaiah was sent by the Hebrew god to Ahaz' court to console the king, assuring the monarch that the invasion will not succeed. To prove his point, Isaiah says:

14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel.
15 He shall eat curds and honey by the time he knows how to refuse the evil and choose the good.
16 For before the child knows how to refuse the evil and choose the good, the land before whose two kings you are in dread will be deserted.

Isaiah 7:14-16 (NRSV)

In other words, before the child learns good from evil (a time span of a few years), his enemies will be defeated. It's not a prophecy about Jesus or the Messiah, and Matthew grossly distorted what the text plainly says. A part of the child's life, from conception to about the age of three or four, is used by Isaiah as a metric of time. To read Messianic Prophecy from it is to engage in creative mental acrobatics.

1. As you alluded to earlier the issue of the Hebrew word for virgin (Betullah) and young maiden (allmah) is really not an issue because in every instance these words are used "betullah" defines "allmah" this means in order to be an "allmah you must also be a "betullah" thus the words can be used synonymously of a young virgin and mean the exact same thing.

2. Isaiah 7 would be classifies as "type" prophecy. That is a prophecy that is acted in the events of history rather than articulated by the spoken word. So the messianic prophesy itself wasn't what Isaiah said but the event he describes even though at the time the even hadn't happened yet. It would run along the same lines as Matthew 12:40 "For just as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth." (If I were trying to convince a Jewish person of the Messiahship of Christ I wouldn't use these type prophecies, I would definitly use more explicite prophesies such Isaiah 53 and others like it)


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5) Jesus was a myth, just like all the other mythological man-gods before Christ
For this point, I'll post my favorite quote on the very subject:
From here
Quote:

When Osiris is said to bring his believers eternal life in Egyptian Heaven, contemplating the unutterable, indescribable glory of God, we understand that as a myth.

When the sacred rites of Demeter at Eleusis are described as bringing believers happiness in their eternal life, we understand that as a myth.

In fact, when ancient writers tell us that in general ancient people believed in eternal life, with the good going to the Elysian Fields and the not so good going to Hades, we understand that as a myth.

When Vespatian's spittle healed a blind man, we understand that as a myth.

When Apollonius of Tyana raised a girl from death, we understand that as a myth.

When the Pythia , the priestess at the Oracle at Delphi, in Greece, prophesied, and over and over again for a thousand years, the prophecies came true, we understand that as a myth.

When Dionysus turned water into wine, we understand that as a myth. When Dionysus believers are filled with atay, the Spirit of God, we understand that as a myth.

When Romulus is described as the Son of God, born of a virgin, we understand that as a myth.

When Alexander the Great is described as the Son of God, born of a mortal woman, we understand that as a myth.

When Augustus is described as the Son of God, born of a mortal , we understand that as a myth.

When Dionysus is described as the Son of God, born of a mortal woman, we understand that as a myth.

When Scipio Africanus (Scipio Africanus, for Christ's sake) is described as the Son of God, born of a mortal woman, we understand that as a myth.

So how come when Jesus is described as
the Son of God,
born of a mortal woman,
according to prophecy,
turning water into wine,
raising girls from the dead, and
healing blind men with his spittle,
and setting it up so His believers got eternal life in Heaven contemplating the unutterable, indescribable glory of God, and off to Hades—er, I mean Hell—for the bad folks...
how come that's not a myth?


You must establish that each of your examples are myths. You assuming that to be so because of your assumptions of how the world works but can you establish it to be so without the use of your assumptions?

Quote:
Furthermore, from wiki
Although there were ethical and ceremonial considerations none of these could compare to the power of the divine eucharist, since it was literally believed to be the body (bread) and blood (ale) of the god. Since the ancient Nilotics believed that humans were whatever they eat, this sacrament was, by extension, able to make them celestial and immortal. The doctrine of the eucharist ultimately has its roots in prehistoric (symbolic) cannibalism, whose practitioners believed that the virtues and powers of the eaten would thus be absorbed by the eater. This phenomenon has been described throughout the world.
(emphasis mine)
The above does not describe the sacrament of Jesus. It describes the sacrament of Osiris, who was first worshiped over 2,400 years before Jesus was.
More on Osiris:
Plutarch and others have noted that the sacrifices to Osiris were “gloomy, solemn, and mournful…” (Isis and Osiris, 69) and that the great mystery festival, celebrated in two phases, began at Abydos on the 17th of Athyr[9] (Nov. 13th) commemorating the death of the god, which is also the same day that grain was planted in the ground. “The death of the grain and the death of the god were one and the same: the cereal was identified with the god who came from heaven; he was the bread by which man lives. The resurrection of the God symbolized the rebirth of the grain.”

At least since Osiris was the grain god, his sacrament made sense. But Christians simply stole this ritual and made it their own without regard to common sense, historical honesty, or, as history tells us, the possibility of being considered a cannibalistic cult as a result of the theft of this sacrament.


Jesus used illustrations and comparisons to make points. When Christ instituted this "Sacriment" (I prefer to classify it as an ordinance but that has no bearing on this discussion) He was simply symbolising His immanent sacrifice by making it parralell to the passover feast. So by all means demonstrate how the Passover feast is derived from the Nioletics and we would have a base to begin discussion.

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Conclusion
Not only is there zero reliable evidence for a historical Jesus, there is also plenty of evidence with which we can logically deduce that Jesus was a myth, just like all the other man-gods that came before and after him. There are no compelling reasons to believe that the Jesus of the Bible could exist, much less did exist, despite the fact that many still believe in this myth toda

The emboldened is really what the issue is about. There is no question that there is evidence for Jesus's existence. We know His name. We know whe